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It is not irresponsible to ask those adherents of the Textus Receptus or the Received Text, “Which TR?”

When it came to textual criticism of the Reformation period and scholastic period, they relied heavily upon internal evidence, as their access to and knowledge of the manuscript data was very limited.

Are we willing to overturn so much manuscript data and external evidence based on this one strange grammatical rendering which a reasonable answer can be offered? Is the internal evidence for the Comma that strong to undue over 500+ Greek manuscripts, all the versions save some Latin, and much of the church fathers?

The internal argument is one that rests primarily on intrinsic probabilities and grammatical difficulties. It asks the question: If the Comma was excluded, would John the author write with such discordant grammar at 1 John 5:7–8?

If one were to argue that the Textus Receptus was the text of the church throughout history, they could only make that claim from the Protestant era onward.

When it comes to the Johannine Comma, the external evidence is stacked against its inclusion. If we ascertain the best reading based by sheer numbers, 98% of the extant Greek manuscript tradition exclude it.