Ephesians 1:4 – Where does the phrase “in love” belong?

by | Mar 17, 2011 | New Testament

We will discuss two issues concerning this phrase: its syntactical function and its meaning. The syntactical function of this prepositional phrase is disputed. Does it modify something antecedent to it or subsequent to it? The ASV (1901), KJV, and NKJV connect it with something in v. 4. The ESV, NAU, and NIV connect it with the participle “having predestined” of v. 5. There are three views. Some take it as qualifying the main verb of v. 4 “He chose”. “He chose us…in love.” “…God’s choice is born in God’s love…”[1] Others take it as qualifying the subsequent participle in v. 5 “having predestined.” “…in love having predestined us…” The third view is that is modifies the nearest antecedent it can, the infinitival clause “that we would be holy and blameless.” It would mean that God’s election has as its purpose the perfected holiness and blamelessness of the elect in His special eschatological presence “in love.” I prefer this latter view for the five reasons Hoehner states.[2] “First, within the present context the verbs and participles describing God’s actions always precede the qualifying phrases.”[3] He then lists the following for proof:

v.   3—”the one who blessed us. . . with every spiritual blessing”

v.   4—”he chose us.. . in him before the foundation of the world”

v.   5—”having predestined us. . . to adoption”

v.   6—”he bestowed grace on us. . . in the beloved”

v.   7—”we have the redemption.. . through his blood”

v.   8—”he lavished on us. . . with all wisdom and insight”

v.   9—”Having made known the mystery.. . according to his good

pleasure”

v.   9–”he purposed. . . in him”

v.   10–”to head up all things. . . in Christ”

v.   1 l–”having been predestined. . . according to his purpose”

“Second, four out of the five times Paul uses “in love” in Ephesians, it follows the clauses it modifies (Eph 4:2, 16, 16; 5:2) and is so used by Paul in other places (Col 2:2; 1 Thess 5:13; cf. also other words, 1 Tim 4:12; 2 Tim 1:13).”[4] Third, the other uses of “in love” in Ephesians (Eph 4:2, 16, 16; 5:2) all refer to human love.[5] Fourth, six other times in Ephesians the noun “love” refers to human love (1:15; 4:2, 15, 16; 5:2; 6:23). “Fifth, it is fitting to have love joined with holiness and blamelessness. They balance each other out.”[6] Hoehner concludes:

God has restored what humans lost in the fall. He is both love and holy and a person is to manifest love with holiness as a result of being elected. This will be fully realized in the future when believers will stand in God’s presence. However, if it is true that they will be holy and blameless before him in love, the purpose of God’s work in believers today is to produce holiness within them and love toward one another. That which will be perfected in the future has its necessary corollary today. Believers are to be holy and blameless before him in love, as well as before their fellow human beings in order to show God’s work and character in them. In conclusion, it seems best to see [“in love”] united to [“holy and blameless”]. Thus, God chose us that we might stand in his presence holy and blameless before Him in love.[7]

Our second question concerning this phrase is its meaning. Whose love is Paul talking about? Is it God’s love for man or man’s love for God or man’s love for God and man? It is probably best to take it as the latter for these reasons. First, the infinitival clause includes other perfected/eschatological human characteristics – holiness and blamelessness. Second, the other uses of “in love” in Ephesians (Eph 4:2, 16, 16; 5:2) all refer to human love.[8] Third, six other times in Ephesians the noun “love” refers to human love (1:15; 4:2, 15, 16; 5:2; 6:23). If this is so, then what Paul is saying is that election is unto holiness and blamelessness in the special, eschatological presence of God where there will be love exhibited for God and man like never before.


[1] Hoehner, Ephesians, 182.

[2] This is also the view of Thielman, Ephesians, 50; O’Brien, Ephesians, 101-102; Lincoln, Ephesians, 17; Hodge, Ephesians, 34-35.

[3] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184.

[4] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184.

[5] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184.

[6] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184.

[7] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184-185.

[8] Hoehner, Ephesians, 184.

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Are all sins the same? | Tom Hicks

Are all sins the same? | Tom Hicks

“Is it true that all people are equally sinful? If someone has sinful anger in his heart, but never acts on it, is that person really the same as someone who has sinful anger in his heart and then murders his whole family?”

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